So i will accept the answer if anyone can tell me whereby a major shareholder in a company would sell a % of their shares in order to have funds to purchase new shares in order that their lesser shareholding would not be diluted under a new share issue? Honestly now, i haven't got a clue so help me out.
These people have visited my local club today and the naive fvckers on the committee seem very impressed with it all and are considering signing up! Looks dodgy as fvck to me, does anyone anything about this company or the legalities behind the deal they are offering?
And due to unfortunate family circumstances we've been busy washing clothes etc as we leave for Liverpool tomorrow for a week as that's where my wife's family are from as some of you know. The good news is, it will give me an opportunity to take some wonderful pictures of this great city, to show you all how much of a nicer place it is to live. I promise to do my best and hope to show Liverpool in all it's true glory.
I have decided to return to my original username of the much loved Garyjack. However, there is the small matter of my 933 up arrows as morningstar that are very important to me. So now i ask you 'my friends and fellow posters' to up arrow this post and all my posts in future to get me back to where i belong. God bless you all and RIP morningstar.
footnote: i will still use morningstar to manipulate any meaningless polls as and when i see fit/bored out of my tiny fvckin mind.